Medical MCQs

1. A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected of having bacterial meningitis and CSF
is obtained for analysis. The nurse confirms the diagnosis with which of the following result?

(a) Clear CSF, elevated protein and decreased glucose levels
(b) Clear CSF, decreased pressure and elevated protein levels
(c) Cloudy CSF, elevated protein and decreased glucose levels
(d) Cloudy CSF, decreased protein and decreased glucose levels

2. Furosemide is administered intravenously to a client with heart failure. How noon after
administration should the nurse begin to monitor the evidence of the drug’s effect?

(a) 5-10 minutes

(b) 30-60 minutes

(c) 2-4 hours

(d) 6-8 hours

3. A 40 year old man is diagnosed with essential hypertension whose blood pressure levels are
consistently at or above which of the following

(a) 120/90 mm Hg

(b) 130/90 mm Hg

(c) 140/90 mm Hg

(d) 140/70 mm Hg

4. A client with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest of
her life. What is the nurse’s best response?

(a) “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is inability to absorb vitamin because stomach is not
producing sufficient acid”.
(b) “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is inability to absorb vitamin because stomach is not
producing sufficient intrinsic factor”.
(c) “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is inability to absorb vitamin because of excessive
excretion by kidney”.
(d) “The reason for your vitamins deficiency is increased requirement for the vitamins due to
rapid RBC production”.

 

5. Aspirin is administered to a client experiencing MI because of its
(a) Antipyretic action
(b) Antithrombotic action
(c) Antiplatelet action
(d) Analgesic action

6. The most significant thing observed for a client admitted immediately after fract ure of femur.
(a) Compartment syndrome
(b) PO2 level
(c) Risk of infection
(d) Associated nerve injuries

7. A client with pneumonia has a temperature ranging between 101o and 102o F and periods of
diaphoresis. Based on this information which of the following nursing interventions would be a
priority?
(a) Maintain complete bed rest
(b) Administer oxygen
(c) Provide frequent lines changes
(d) Provide fluid intake adequately

8. A 40 year old woman with history of asthma is admitted to emergency department. The nurse
notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring and use of
accessory muscles. Auscultation of lungs reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on there
findings which should be a priority action?

(a) Initiate O2 therapy and reassess after 10 minutes
(b) Draw blood for ABG analysis and obtain chest X-ray
(c) Administer bronchodilators
(d) Encourage the client to relax and breath through mouth.

9. The nurse interprets which of the following as an early sign of ARDS in a client at risk?
(a) Elevated PCO2
(b) Hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy
(c) Severe electrolyte imbalance
(d) Metabolic acidosis

10. The nurse teaches the client how to instill nasal drops. Which of the following techniques are
correct?
(a) The client uses sterile techniques while handling the dropper
(b) The client blows the nose gently before instilling drops
(c) The client uses a new dropper for each instillation
(d) The client sits in a semi-flower’s position for instillation

 

11. Which of the following symptom is most common in tuberculosis?
(a) Weight loss
(b) Increased appetite
(c) Dyspnoea on exertion
(d) Skin rashes

 

12. Prednisolone is usually not used along with
(a) Omeprazole (b) Ranitidine
(c) Aspirin (d) Dicnil

 

13. A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding
duodenal ulcer. Later, client develops a sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric region along with a
rigid abdomen. There clinical manifestations most likely indicates

(a) An intestinal obstruction has developed
(b) Additional ulcers have developed
(c) The esophagus has became inflamed
(d) The ulcer has perforated

 

14. For caring a client with ileostomy, which of the following has the highest priority?

(a) Providing relief from constipation
(b) Assisting client with self care activities
(c) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
(d) Minimizing odour formation
 

15. A client with chronic pancreatitis should be monitored closely for the development of which
of the following disorder?

(a) Cholelithiasis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Irritable bowel syndrome
(d) Diabetes mellitus

 

16. Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should always include
examination of

(a) Abdomen

(b) Lymph nodes

(c) Pharynx

(d) Eyes

 

17. The nurse should recognize that fluid shift in a client with burn injury results from an increase
in the

(a) Permeability of capillary walls
(b) Total volume of intravascular plasma
(c) Permeability of kidney tubules
(d) Total volume of circulating whole blood

 

18. The nurse should teach the diabetic client that which of the following is the most common
symptom of hypoglycemia

(a) Nervousness
(b) Anorexia
(c) Kassmaul’s respiration
(d) Brady cardia

 

19. A client is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of renal calculi. He is experiencing severe
flank pain and nausea. His temperature is 100.6o F. Which of the following would be a priority
action?

(a) Prevention of urinary tract infection
(b) Alleviation of pain
(c) Alleviation of nausea
(d) Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance

 

20. Hypophysectomy means
(a) Removal of parathyroids
(b) Removal of ovaries
(c) Removal of pituitary gland
(d) Removal of adrenal gland

 

21. 0.9% normal saline is a
(a) Isotonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Hypertonic solution
(d) Colloid

 

22. A client complains pain at the site of an intervenous infusion. The nurse assess the site and
determines that the client has developed phlebitis. The nurse avoids which action in care of this
client?

(a) Notifies the physician
(b) Applies warm moist pack to the site
(c) Discontineus the IV catheter at the site
(d) Starts a new IV line in the proximal portion of some vein

 

23. A nurse walks into a client’s room and finds the client is unresponsive. The client is not
breathing and does not have a pulse, and the nurse immediately calls out for help. The next nursing
action is which of the following?
(a) Open the airway
(b) Administer oxygen
(c) Start chest compression
(d) Ventilate with a mouth to mask device

 

24. A nurse assesses a client’s surgical incision for signs of infection. Which finding by the nurse
would be interpreted as normal finding at the surgical site?
(a) Red, hard skin
(b) Serous drainage
(c) Purulent drainage
(d) Warm, tender skin

 

25. What is the backbone of infection control practices
(a) Proper disposal

(b) Hand washing

(c) Tepid sponge

(d) Mouth care

 

26. Which of the following is the most reliable method of temperature measurement?
(a) Oral method

(b) Axillary method

(c) Rectal method

(d) All of these

 

27. “Step ladder” pattern of fever is observed in

(a) TB

(b) Typhoid fever

(c) Malaria

(d) UTI

 

28. Which of the following pattern of respiration is seen in patient admitted with injury to medulla
oblongata?

(a) Biot’s respiration
(b) Cheyne stokes respiration
(c) Kussmaul’s respiration
(d) Apneostic respiration

 

29. 14 G IV canula can be identified with the colour code of
(a) Orange

(b) Grey

(c) Green

(d) Yellow

30. When the nurse performs mouth care for an unconscious patient, which nursing intervention is
the priority?
(a) Keep a suction machine available
(b) Place the client in supine position
(c) Wear sterile gloves while brushing the patient’s teeth
(d) Use gauze wrapped around the fingers to clean patient’s gum

 

31. Which of the following is an example for non absorbable suture?

(a) Nylon

(b) Vicryl

(c) Cat gut

(d) All of the above

 

32. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to operating room. The nurse should take
which action in the care of this client at this time?

(a) Ensure that the client has voided
(b) Administer all the daily medications
(c) Practice post operative breathing exercises
(d) Verify that he client has not eaten for the last 24 hrs

 

33. A nurse understands that which of the following is a correct guideline for adult CPR?

(a) One breath should be given for every five compressions
(b) Two breaths should be given for every 15 compressions
(c) Initially, two quick breaths should be given as rapidly as possible
(d) Each rescue breath should be given over 1 second and should produce visible chest rise

 

34. For a client with Gastro exphageal reflux disease (GERD), the recommended position is
(a) Fowler’s position
(b) Trendelenburg’’s position
(c) Reverse trendelenburg’s position
(d) Right lateral position

 

35. A nurse is assessing for correct placement of a narogastric tube. The nurse aspirates the
contents and checks for pH. The nurse verifies correct tube placement if pH value is

(a) 3.5

(b) 7.0

(c) 7.35

(d) 7.5

 

36. 1 gm of Hb contains mg of iron.

(a) 1.34 mg

(b) 3.4 mg

(c) 34 mg

(d) 4.3 mg

 

37. Which of the following is not a mandatory vaccine?

(a) Measles vaccine

(b) Varicella vaccine

(c) DPT

(d) OPV

 

38. Which of the following is not a live attenuated vaccine?
(a) OPV

(b) BCG

(c) TT

(d) MMR

 

39. Percentage of available chlorine in bleaching powder is

(a) 23%

(b) 33%

(c) 35%

(d) 43%

 

40. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is expected after blood transfusion?

(a) Hyper calcemia
(b) Hyper kalemia
(c) Hypo kalemia
(d) Hyper magneremia

41. RNTCP was started in the year

(a) 1972

(b) 1982

(c) 1992

(d) 1962

 

42. Health survey and planning committee is named as

(a) Bhore committee
(b) Mudaliar committee
(c) Kartar Singh committee
(d) Jungalwalla committee

 

43. Diseases occurring in an area from a common source on a large scale is called

(a) Epidemic

(b) Endemic

(c) Pandemic

(d) Sporadic

 

44. Koplik’s spots are seen in

(a) Mamps

(b) Measles

(c) Rubella

(d) Varicella

 

45. Primary level of disease prevention includes
(a) Early diagnosis and treatment
(b) Disability limitation and rehabilitation
(c) Health promotion and specific protection
(d) All the above

 

46. Which of the following is not a method of spacing?

(a) Condom

(b) IUD

(c) Diaphragm

(d) Vasectomy

 

47. According to psychosexual stages of development by Sigmand Freud, the phallic stage is the
period of

(a) 0-1 years

(b) 1-3 years

(c) 3-6 years

(d) 6-12 years

 

48. The mother of a 4 year old child calls the clinic nurse and expresses concern because the child
has been masturbating. Using Erikson’s Psychosocial development theory the appropriate response by
the nurse is

(a) “This is a normal behavior at this age”

(b) “Children usually begins this behavior at the age of 8 years”
(c) “This is not a normal behavior”
(d) “This child is very young to begin this behavior, and should be consulted by the physician”

 

49. A nurse assesses the vital signs of a 12 month old infant with respiratory infection and notes
that the respiratory rate is 35 breaths/minute. Based on this finding, which action is appropriate?

(a) Administer oxygen

(b) Notify the physician

(c) Document the findings

(d) Reassess after 15 minutes

 

50. Public health centre is meant for a population of

(a) 20,000 – 30,000

(b) 30,000 – 50,000

(c) 10,000 – 20,000

(d) 3,000 – 5,000

 

51. Surgical Management of BPH

A. ORIF

B. CABG

C. TURP

D. PAMI

 

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Correct Answers

1 C           26 A            51 C
2 A            27 B
3 C            28 A
4 B            29 A
5 B            30 A
6 B            31 A
7 D            32 A
8 C            33 D
9 B            34 C
10 B           35 A
11 A           36 B
12 C           37 B
13 D          38 C
14 C          39 B
15 D          40 B
16 D          41 C
17 A          42 B
18 A          43 A
19 B          44 B
20 C          45 C
21 A          46 D
22 D          47 C
23 A          48 A
24 B          49 C
25 B          50 A

              

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Watch Complete Lecture series on Dose Calculation on YouTube -

Dose Calculation Lectures (English)

• Part 1: https://youtu.be/aC-KsN-e-fQ
• Part 2: https://youtu.be/kJlod0iQxZI
• Part 3: https://youtu.be/5v2YYtxRda4
• Part 4: https://youtu.be/9r6OrWN1j2c

Dose Calculation Lectures (Hindi)

• Part 1 : https://youtu.be/DI3AQ34Q9Co
• Part 2 : https://youtu.be/xHLj_Y9Y_Yg

 

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