Before giving IV Digoxin, hold the dose if adult apical HR is _____ 60 bpm.
A. Above
B. Below
Before giving IV Digoxin, hold the dose if adult apical HR is Below 60 bpm.
Clinical Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows AV conduction; administering it with an apical heart rate less than 60 bpm risks severe bradycardia and fatal toxicity.
In acute late decelerations during oxytocin infusion, the nurse must _____ the IV drip immediately.
A. Stop
B. Slow
In acute late decelerations during oxytocin infusion, the nurse must Stop the IV drip immediately.
Clinical Rationale: Late decelerations signal uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia; the infusion must be discontinued completely, not merely reduced.
In suspected Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction, the primary action is to _____ the blood unit.
A. Stop
B. Slow
In suspected Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction, the primary action is to Stop the blood unit.
Clinical Rationale: Continuing to infuse incompatible blood precipitates acute intravascular hemolysis, renal failure, and shock.
During severe Vancomycin flushing Red Man Syndrome, the nurse should _____ the infusion.
A. Stop
B. Slow
During severe Vancomycin flushing Red Man Syndrome, the nurse should Slow the infusion.
Clinical Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related histamine release, not an IgE-mediated anaphylaxis; slowing the rate over 60 minutes or more resolves the reaction.
When drawing regular and NPH insulin together, draw _____ first.
A. Clear
B. Cloudy
When drawing regular and NPH insulin together, draw Clear first.
Clinical Rationale: The standard mnemonic is Clear before Cloudy Regular before NPH to avoid contaminating the rapid or short-acting vial with intermediate-acting protein agents.
For an unconscious hypoglycemic patient without IV access, give Glucagon _____.
A. Oral
B. IM
For an unconscious hypoglycemic patient without IV access, give Glucagon IM.
Clinical Rationale: Unconscious patients cannot protect their airway; oral liquids or gels present a severe aspiration risk.
To maximize vital capacity and ease diaphragmatic excursion, place the patient _____.
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler’s
To maximize vital capacity and ease diaphragmatic excursion, place the patient High-Fowler’s.
Clinical Rationale: High-Fowlers 60 to 90 degrees drops the abdominal contents via gravity, allowing maximal lung expansion compared to supine positioning.
In cord prolapse, position the mother with hips _____ than the head.
A. Lower
B. Higher
In cord prolapse, position the mother with hips Higher than the head.
Clinical Rationale: Trendelenburg or Knee-Chest positioning uses gravity to shift the fetal presenting part off the umbilical cord, relieving vessel compression.
Regular insulin is the _____ form approved for IV administration.
A. Only
B. Preferred
Regular insulin is the Only form approved for IV administration.
Clinical Rationale: Regular insulin is the only soluble formulation safe for IV infusion in acute emergencies like DKA; intermediate and long-acting forms are strictly subcutaneous.
A single unit of PRBCs must be completely infused within _____ hours of release.
A. 4
B. 6
A single unit of PRBCs must be completely infused within 4 hours of release.
Clinical Rationale: Exceeding 4 hours at room temperature causes rapid proliferation of bacterial contaminants and red blood cell degradation.
Rifampicin turns urine and bodily secretions _____.
A. Red-Orange
B. Blue-Green
Rifampicin turns urine and bodily secretions Red-Orange.
Clinical Rationale: Rifampicin produces a harmless, expected reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, saliva, and tears.
Patients prescribed Spironolactone must _____ dietary potassium intake.
A. Increase
B. Restrict
Patients prescribed Spironolactone must Restrict dietary potassium intake.
Clinical Rationale: As an aldosterone antagonist, Spironolactone spares potassium in the distal tubules; excess dietary potassium risks lethal cardiac arrhythmias.
To prevent peripheral neuritis during Isoniazid INH therapy, co-administer Vitamin _____.
A. B1
B. B6
To prevent peripheral neuritis during Isoniazid INH therapy, co-administer Vitamin B6.
Clinical Rationale: INH competes with pyridoxal phosphate, causing deficiency that manifests as peripheral neuropathy; Pyridoxine B6 supplementation prevents this toxicity.
Carboprost is strictly _____ in patients with a history of bronchial asthma.
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
Carboprost is strictly Contraindicated in patients with a history of bronchial asthma.
Clinical Rationale: Carboprost PGF2 alpha stimulates potent smooth muscle constriction, precipitating bronchospasm in asthmatic patients.
The antidote for Paracetamol Acetaminophen toxicity is _____.
A. Naloxone
B. N-Acetylcysteine
The antidote for Paracetamol Acetaminophen toxicity is N-Acetylcysteine.
Clinical Rationale: N-acetylcysteine replenishes hepatic glutathione stores, neutralizing the hepatotoxic metabolite NAPQI.
Perioral tingling and a positive Trousseau sign indicate _____.
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
Perioral tingling and a positive Trousseau sign indicate Hypocalcemia.
Clinical Rationale: Neuromuscular excitability tetany, carpopedal spasm occurs when ionized serum calcium drops, frequently observed after inadvertent parathyroid injury during thyroidectomy.
Cushing’s Triad in rising ICP presents with _____.
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
Cushing’s Triad in rising ICP presents with Bradycardia.
Clinical Rationale: Cushings Triad consists of systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular or bradypneic respirations.
A patient with a fractured hip classically presents with the affected extremity _____.
A. Internally rotated
B. Externally rotated
A patient with a fractured hip classically presents with the affected extremity Externally rotated.
Clinical Rationale: Muscle spasms pull the proximal unanchored bone fragment upward and outward, producing characteristic limb shortening and external rotation.
To prevent hip prosthesis dislocation after total hip arthroplasty, maintain the leg in _____.
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
To prevent hip prosthesis dislocation after total hip arthroplasty, maintain the leg in Abduction.
Clinical Rationale: Abduction seats the femoral head firmly into the acetabular cup; adduction past midline risks popping the ball out of the socket.
The earliest and most reliable sign of compartment syndrome is pain _____ with passive muscle stretch.
A. Relieved
B. Increased
The earliest and most reliable sign of compartment syndrome is pain Increased with passive muscle stretch.
Clinical Rationale: Severe, deep, burning pain out of proportion to the injury exacerbated by passive stretching is the hallmark early warning sign of compartment ischemia.
In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose levels are characteristically _____.
A. Elevated
B. Decreased
In bacterial meningitis, CSF glucose levels are characteristically Decreased.
Clinical Rationale: Proliferating bacteria and infiltrating leukocytes consume glucose rapidly for metabolism, resulting in hypoglycorrhachia alongside high CSF protein and turbidity.
Wrist drop deformity is caused by injury to the _____ nerve.
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
Wrist drop deformity is caused by injury to the Radial nerve.
Clinical Rationale: The radial nerve innervates the wrist and finger extensor muscles; motor denervation leaves the flexors unopposed.
A palpable thrill over an AV fistula is an _____ finding.
A. Expected
B. Abnormal
A palpable thrill over an AV fistula is an Expected finding.
Clinical Rationale: High-velocity turbulent blood flow transferring from the artery to the low-pressure vein creates a normal palpable vibration thrill and audible bruit confirming patency.
A Bishop score of 9 indicates that the cervix is _____ for induction.
A. Favorable
B. Unfavorable
A Bishop score of 9 indicates that the cervix is Favorable for induction.
Clinical Rationale: A Bishop score of 8 or greater confirms a ripe, favorable cervix with a high likelihood of successful vaginal delivery.
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester indicates placenta _____.
A. Previa
B. Abruptio
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester indicates placenta Previa.
Clinical Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bright bleeding as lower uterine segment changes disrupt placental attachments, whereas abruptio placentae causes painful, dark bleeding with a rigid abdomen.
Digital vaginal examinations are strictly _____ in suspected placenta previa.
A. Permitted
B. Contraindicated
Digital vaginal examinations are strictly Contraindicated in suspected placenta previa.
Clinical Rationale: Digital insertion into the cervical canal can tear the low-lying placenta, triggering massive maternal hemorrhage and fetal demise.
Green-colored amniotic fluid indicates the presence of _____.
A. Blood
B. Meconium
Green-colored amniotic fluid indicates the presence of Meconium.
Clinical Rationale: Fetal hypoxia or distress triggers anal sphincter relaxation and gastrointestinal peristalsis, causing passage of dark-green meconium into the amniotic sac.
Immunoglobulin _____ is the only antibody capable of crossing the human placenta.
A. IgG
B. IgM
Immunoglobulin IgG is the only antibody capable of crossing the human placenta.
Clinical Rationale: Receptor-mediated transcytosis across syncytiotrophoblasts allows monomeric IgG to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the newborn.